Why are verbs “conjugated” for gender but nouns are “declined” for gender?

As you probably know, inflection is called “declension” when it's about nouns, adjectives, pronouns, etc, but “conjugation” when it's about verbs. On more on one occasion I've seen someone say “nouns are not conjugated, they are declined!”, and I think I might have been that someone a couple of times.

But is there any good reason for the distinction or is it just (I'm guessing here) some legacy of Latin grammarians who separated the two concepts? It often looks like unnecessary pedantry, especially if it's the same property that we inflect on (e.g. gender).

submitted by /u/Norrius
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